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So, you're saying Strunk and White is wrong and you're right?
It's wrong now, in terms of preferred US usage.
It wasn't wrong at the time it was written, which was many decades ago.
So, you're saying Strunk and White is wrong and you're right?
Let me put my grammar theory on here. Got is the past form of get and gotten is the past participle, meaning to use it you need to use have, has, or had before it. In writing, it can make a sentence wordy why say, "I had gotten some ice cream when you can say, "I had some ice cream. There are proper ways to use gotten though, but it's almost like slang.
ex. She's gotten into a fight before. vs She's been in a fight before.
No doubt it's outdated. But I find it difficult to believe the argument that "had got" is always and absolutely incorrect in US usage, anymore than "had gotten" is always and absolutely incorrect in Canadian usage. One is more acceptable and widely used than another -- and taught in grammar classes -- but not totally incorrect. Your post says "preferred," and I conceded that point some dozen posts ago.It's wrong now, in terms of preferred US usage.
It wasn't wrong at the time it was written, which was many decades ago.
No doubt it's outdated. But I find it difficult to believe the argument that "had got" is always and absolutely incorrect in US usage
narrative is also in the character's voice if it's 3rd person pov, or 1st. the only time it's not in character is if it's omniscient. so yes, i agree that a better word can be found, but sometimes it's just the right word.
It's not like slang; it has a specific meaning, because it's used in particular tenses that themselves have specific meaning. And if that's the meaning you need, there's no other way to get it--not in American English, anyway.
As for your sentences, "I had gotten some ice cream" means you obtained (e.g., bought) ice cream before some other thing happened. For example, "I had just gotten some ice cream when a car came crashing through the window of the Baskin-Robbins." But "I had some ice cream" doesn't mean "before X other thing happened," and it generally means you ate ice cream: "I had some ice cream for dessert." In some contexts, it can mean you had a container of ice cream with you (in your hand, in your shopping bag...): "I had some ice cream, but I don't know where it went--I must've left that shopping bag in the cart instead of loading it into the car!"
Because the simple past doesn't have the meaning of "X happened before Y happened," you can't say "I had some ice cream when a car came crashing through..." That's just not correct; you need to use the past perfect in a sentence like that. The specific meaning of the past perfect is "X happened before Y happened," so that's the tense you need in a sentence like this--and as a result, if you use "get" in that sentence, you need to say "had gotten."
The same is true of the other tenses mentioned here--have gotten (present perfect), would have gotten (conditional type 3), etc. All those tenses have specific meanings--the choice of tense tells you about when and how the verb occurred. So it's not slang, it's just grammar.
That actually illustrates another point too. In sentences where you could use either "to get" or "to be," using "get" can imply that there's some blame or credit to go around for whatever follows "get," while using "to be" is more neutral. I read this in some dictionary, and I remember the examples:
"The demonstrators were arrested." --Totally neutral and factual.
"The demonstrators got arrested." --Factual, but with a slight sense of blame--either blaming the demonstrators or blaming the cops.
"The demonstrators got themselves arrested." --Factual, but with a definite sense of blaming the demonstrators.
I think I keep accidentally contradicting you, which I'm not trying to do. But you're right, sometimes it works.
Mine too!After reading all of this my head is spinning.
Mine too!
I think it might have helped if you'd mentioned up front your nationality and/or where you intend to submit your mss. when it's finished (heck, that might help a lot of threads here) so folks don't get sidetracked by discussing whatever rules and foibles apply in their own region but don't really help answer your question.
-Derek
yes, gotten is an archaic use in the UK, but you would have trouble finding an extant user of it there or one from the last century. In fact I remember finding it corrected with some outrage (exclamation points added) by pencil weilding users of Scottish public library books.
Warning: over-analysis alert!!.