Bit of background first, I think.
Here's the sentence:
Alerted seems transitive to me--it needs to have something doing it to something else (agent acting on patient, subject and object, etc.)
My partner disagrees, he believes that alerted is intransitive and can stand as is.
To quote him:
So I suppose the ultimate problem is that I believe passive voice will always have transitive verbs, while he believes that passive voice always has intransitive verbs.
What I'm curious about though, is if either of those ideas is correct. Is the concept that passive voice always contains either only transitive or intransitive verbs a kind of quick & dirty rule, or is it an actual law of the English language?
ETA: Unless we're both off mark and this sentence is actually active voice . . . because I think sometimes the subject can look like an object in active voice because it's experiencing the action that it's doing . . . now I think I'm just confusing myself.
Here's the sentence:
I look at it, and I want to give "alerted" a subject, I want something to be doing the alerting, because right now I'm pretty sure neither the stretcher or the gurney are doing it. Logically they're the reason, but they don't seem to be doing so on a grammatical level.My eyes were alerted open when the stretcher was briskly lifted and placed onto a gurney, which then began to roll.
Alerted seems transitive to me--it needs to have something doing it to something else (agent acting on patient, subject and object, etc.)
My partner disagrees, he believes that alerted is intransitive and can stand as is.
To quote him:
My main doubt stems from how although the definition of alerted--to have someone be notified or warned--seems like it would require at least two nouns at work, I don't believe that language and grammar always mesh that way.I disagree that the passive voice is always transitive. In fact, the opposite is true: the passive voice is always intransitive.
In valency, the definition of an intransitive verb is that it takes exactly one argument: the subject. By contrast, the definition of a transitive verb is that it takes exactly two arguments: the subject and an object.
A passive [voice] verb cannot take a direct object; it is grammatically incorrect.
So I suppose the ultimate problem is that I believe passive voice will always have transitive verbs, while he believes that passive voice always has intransitive verbs.
What I'm curious about though, is if either of those ideas is correct. Is the concept that passive voice always contains either only transitive or intransitive verbs a kind of quick & dirty rule, or is it an actual law of the English language?
ETA: Unless we're both off mark and this sentence is actually active voice . . . because I think sometimes the subject can look like an object in active voice because it's experiencing the action that it's doing . . . now I think I'm just confusing myself.
I've got that in a text book somewhere.